I am writing a paper on Romeo and Juliet , answering the question are Romeo and Juliet truly in love. I am using Aristotle's love paradoxe to answer this question, and am going to say that Juliet is in Utility love throughout the story and Romeo is in pleasure love throughout the story. Although the two together make complete love or "true love", I am going to say that for their love to be complete and true, then Romeo would need to be in utility love and pleasure love and so would juliet. does this make sense?
Aristotle's love paradoxe- Romeo and Juliet?
Hello!
Although I have not studied Aristotle's Love Paradoxe, I HAVE studied both Romeo and Juliet and Aristotle's other works. Based on what I know, what you're saying does seem to make sense. After all, how could a couple's love for eachother be complete if each person's love is not complete? This is, of course, going on your assertion that the combination of Utility love and Pleasure love make a complete love, which I will have to take your word on. Additionally, I agree that Romeo is in pleasure love while Juliet is in utility love... I applaud your thesis statement. Good luck!
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